Environmental Laws — UPSC CSE Questions

599 UPSC CSE practice questions on Environmental Laws, part of Environment & Ecology. Below are 12 of them in full, each with the answer and a written explanation.

Questions & explanations

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2011: 1. It categorizes coastal areas into four zones (CRZ-I, CRZ-II, CRZ-III, and CRZ-IV) based on their ecological sensitivity and development status. 2. In CRZ-I areas, construction activities are generally prohibited, except for projects of strategic importance or those requiring foreshore facilities, subject to strict environmental safeguards. 3. The notification mandates the preparation of Coastal Zone Management Plans (CZMPs) by coastal states and Union Territories, which require approval from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The CRZ Notification, 2011, classifies coastal areas into four categories: CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive areas, generally no-development zones), CRZ-II (developed areas), CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed areas), and CRZ-IV (water area and intertidal zone). This categorization is indeed based on ecological sensitivity and the extent of development, which then dictates the specific regulations for each zone. Statement 2 is correct: CRZ-I areas are designated as ecologically sensitive and are largely no-development zones. However, specific activities like projects of strategic importance (e.g., defense, atomic energy) or those requiring foreshore facilities (e.g., port facilities, jetties) are permitted, but only with prior environmental clearance and strict environmental safeguards. General construction is prohibited. Statement 3 is correct: A key feature of the CRZ Notification, 2011, is the requirement for coastal states and Union Territories to prepare Coastal Zone Management Plans (CZMPs). These plans delineate the CRZ boundaries and regulate activities withi

2. Consider the following: (1) A dispute over the cutting of trees in a forest area. (2) A dispute over the emission of harmful gases from a factory. (3) A dispute over the violation of a municipal solid waste management rule. Which of the above can be directly taken to the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

The NGT has jurisdiction over matters involving substantial questions relating to environment arising out of the implementation of the laws listed in Schedule I. The Forest (Conservation) Act (for cutting trees) and the Air Act (for emissions) are in Schedule I. However municipal solid waste management rules are not part of Schedule I; they are under the Environment Protection Act but the NGT can hear cases under the EPA only if they involve a substantial question of environment. However the question asks 'directly taken' the NGT can directly entertain cases under Schedule I laws. The EPA is in Schedule I but the rules themselves are not a separate law. Typically violations of EPA rules can be brought to NGT. But to be precise all three can be brought if they involve substantial environment questions. However the standard UPSC answer is that NGT covers all environmental matters. But given the strict reading option (a) is safer because forest and air are clearly covered. But many students get confused. The correct answer is (c) because all three are covered under Schedule I laws. Air

3. Consider the following statements regarding the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, 2018: 1. CRZ-I areas are designated as ecologically sensitive zones and include mangroves and coral reefs. 2. CRZ-II areas are those that have been developed up to or on the shoreline within municipal limits. 3. The CRZ Notification, 2018, completely prohibits any new construction in CRZ-III areas. Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct: CRZ-I areas are designated as ecologically sensitive zones and include areas such as mangroves, coral reefs, sand dunes, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries, requiring the highest level of protection. Statement 2 is correct: CRZ-II areas are designated as developed land areas up to or on the shoreline within existing municipal limits or other legally designated urban areas. These zones are already substantially developed with buildings, roads, water supply, drainage, and sewerage mains, reflecting a high degree of urbanization. Statement 3 is incorrect: The CRZ Notification, 2018, does not completely prohibit new construction in CRZ-III areas. It allows for regulated development, including the construction of individual dwelling units for local communities, tourism facilities, and certain public utilities, subject to specific conditions and environmental clearance. CRZ-III areas are generally rural and undeveloped.

4. With reference to the schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as amended in 2022, consider the following statements: 1. Schedule I includes both critically endangered animals and plants. 2. Schedule II lists animal species that are protected but are subject to lesser penalties for offenses compared to Schedule I. 3. Schedule IV of the Act incorporates species listed in the Appendices of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. 1. **Statement 1 is incorrect.** Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as amended in 2022, Schedule I exclusively lists animal species that are accorded the highest level of protection. Plants are now listed separately in Schedule III. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** Schedule II lists animal species that are also protected, but the penalties for offenses related to these species are generally lesser compared to those for Schedule I species, reflecting a slightly lower, though still significant, level of protection. 3. **Statement 3 is correct.** Schedule IV of the amended Act is specifically dedicated to incorporating species listed in the Appendices of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), thereby streamlining the implementation of CITES provisions in India.

5. The Western Ghats hotspot is known for a high degree of endemism. Which of the following groups shows the highest percentage of endemism in this hotspot?

  1. (a) Amphibians
  2. (b) Reptiles
  3. (c) Freshwater fish
  4. (d) Flowering plants

Answer: (a) Amphibians

Flowering plants (angiosperms) show the highest endemism in the Western Ghats with over 50% of species being endemic. Amphibians also have high endemism (about 80% of amphibians are endemic) but the absolute number of endemic flowering plants is much larger. However the question asks for 'highest percentage' amphibians have ~80% endemism flowering plants ~50%. Amphibians: about 200 species ~160 endemic (80%). So amphibians have higher percentage. But typical UPSC references state that flowering plants have the highest number of endemics not percentage. The question says 'percentage' so amphibians are correct. However many sources say 'amphibians' have highest endemism. amphibians have ~80% endemism reptiles ~60% fish ~50% plants ~50%. So answer is amphibians.

6. With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. 2. It has jurisdiction over civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment arising out of the implementation of specific environmental laws listed in Schedule I of the Act. 3. An appeal against an order of the NGT lies directly to the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 1 and 2 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18th October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Statement 2 is correct: The NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment arising out of the implementation of the specific environmental laws listed in Schedule I of the Act. These include laws like the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, etc. Statement 3 is correct: Any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the NGT may appeal to the Supreme Court of India within 90 days from the date of communication of the order or decision.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the National Green Tribunal (NGT): 1. The Chairperson of NGT must be a sitting or retired Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. The NGT has a minimum of 10 judicial members and 10 expert members. 3. Expert members must have knowledge in environmental science or law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The Chairperson of NGT must be a sitting or retired Judge of the Supreme Court (or Chief Justice of a High Court), as per Section 5(1) of the NGT Act, 2010. Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 4(4)(b) and 4(4)(c) of the NGT Act, 2010, the Tribunal shall consist of not less than ten and subject to a maximum of twenty full-time Judicial Members, and not less than ten and subject to a maximum of twenty full-time Expert Members. Statement 3 is correct: As per Section 5(2)(b) of the NGT Act, 2010, Expert Members must have a professional qualification and at least fifteen years of experience in the field of environmental science/engineering/management or law, which implies having knowledge in these areas.

8. With reference to the composition and appointment of members of the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. The Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. 2. A person who is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court or Chief Justice of a High Court is eligible to be appointed as the Chairperson of the NGT. 3. Expert Members of the NGT are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct — the Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (Section 6). Statement 2 is false — under Section 4(1), only a person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court of India is eligible to be the Chairperson; a Chief Justice of a High Court is NOT eligible for this position (they may be eligible as judicial members, not as Chairperson). Statement 3 is false — expert members are appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a Selection Committee, NOT in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (that procedure applies only to judicial appointments). Correct: 1 only.

9. With respect to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, consider the following statements: 1. It applies to all forest lands, including those under private ownership. 2. It requires the Central Government’s approval for any diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes. 3. It allows the State Government to declare any area as a forest without Central approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct — post the Supreme Court's Godavarman judgment (1996), the FCA 1980 was interpreted to apply to all land recorded as 'forest' in any government record, including private lands recorded as forest. This is now the standard UPSC teaching. Statement 2 is correct — prior Central Government approval is required for any diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes. Statement 3 is correct — State Governments can declare additional areas as forest (adding to forest cover) without Central Government approval under FCA, since the Act only restricts DIVERSION away from forest use. All three statements are correct; the answer is (d).

10. Which of the following statements about the composition and functioning of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is/are correct? 1. The Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. 2. The NGT can function in any part of India only with the prior approval of the Central Government. 3. The NGT is mandated to dispose of applications and appeals within six months from the date of their filing. Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: The Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, as per the NGT Act, 2010. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NGT has a Principal Bench in New Delhi and four other zonal benches (Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, Chennai). While it can function in other parts of India, it does not require prior approval from the Central Government for each specific sitting beyond its established benches. Statement 3 is correct: The NGT Act, 2010, mandates the Tribunal to endeavour to dispose of applications and appeals within six months from the date of their filing.

11. Which of the following statements about the CRZ Notification, 2011, is/are correct? 1. CRZ-III includes rural areas in coastal regions. 2. No construction is allowed in CRZ-I without prior approval. 3. CRZ-II covers urban areas located within 200 meters of the High Tide Line.

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 1: CRZ-III includes rural areas in coastal regions. Statement 2: No construction is allowed in CRZ-I without prior approval, as it comprises ecologically sensitive areas and the intertidal zone. Statement 3 is incorrect. CRZ-II covers areas that are already developed up to or close to the shoreline, which typically include municipal limits or other legally designated urban areas. The 200-meter restriction from the High Tide Line is primarily associated with the No Development Zone in CRZ-III (rural/undeveloped areas), not a defining characteristic of CRZ-II.

12. Consider the following statements about the 'Vulture Conservation Breeding Programme' in India: 1. It focuses on three species: White-rumped Vulture, Indian Vulture, and Slender-billed Vulture. 2. The main cause of vulture decline was the veterinary use of diclofenac. 3. The programme has successfully established captive populations and released some individuals into the wild. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) 1 and 2 only
  2. (b) 2 and 3 only
  3. (c) 1 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: the Vulture Conservation Breeding Programme focuses on White-rumped Vulture, Indian Vulture (Long-billed Vulture), and Slender-billed Vulture — the three Gyps vulture species most affected. Statement 2 is correct: the primary cause of population collapse was the veterinary use of the NSAID diclofenac, which is toxic to vultures. Statement 3 is false: as of now, captive populations have been established but no large-scale release into the wild has occurred — the programme has not yet successfully released individuals. Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct — answer is (a).

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